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Oct 11, 2023 at 0:18 answer added Vladimir Zolotov timeline score: 2
Jun 21, 2018 at 4:35 history edited Mohammad Ghomi CC BY-SA 4.0
added 8 characters in body
Jun 19, 2018 at 1:04 comment added Robert Bryant @JosephO'Rourke: However, your question only states "Let $T$ be a geodesic triangle", not "Let $T$ be any geodesic triangle". If any geodesic triangle can be copied without 'distortion', then, sure, the Gauss curvature has to be constant. This is an easy consequence of geodesic normal coordinates. I thought you were asking about the harder problem of knowing only that you can copy a specific 'congruence class' of geodesic triangles without distortion.
Jun 18, 2018 at 23:35 vote accept Joseph O'Rourke
Jun 18, 2018 at 23:35
Jun 18, 2018 at 23:33 comment added Joseph O'Rourke @Acccumulation: I meant for $T$ to be an arbitrary triangle, not just one specific triangle. So $\forall T$.
Jun 18, 2018 at 22:54 answer added Acccumulation timeline score: 0
Jun 18, 2018 at 22:45 comment added Acccumulation There is a slight ambiguity as to whether you are asking whether "$\exists T: T' \equiv T \rightarrow C$ is constant" or "$\forall T: T' \equiv T \rightarrow C$ is constant".
Jun 18, 2018 at 15:16 comment added Robert Bryant If by 'moved around' you mean that there are intrinsic isometries of the surface $S$ that allow you to move a given vertex of $T$ to any other point of the surface, then, yes, the surface has constant Gauss curvature. This follows because the group of intrinsic isometries preserves the Gauss curvature, and your 'move around arbitrarily' hypothesis would then imply that the Gauss curvature must be the same at any two points. It would be better to put conditions on the set of triangles in $S$ congruent to $T$, i.e., that there should be 'enough' of them in an appropriate sense.
Jun 18, 2018 at 14:17 answer added Robert Bryant timeline score: 7
Jun 18, 2018 at 11:03 comment added Mikhail Katz @Gro-Tsen, depending on the interpretation this may not be true in higher dimensions; see this answer.
Jun 18, 2018 at 10:46 answer added Mikhail Katz timeline score: 5
Jun 18, 2018 at 10:18 comment added Joseph O'Rourke @Gro-Tsen: Yes, I believe you are correct: should be true in $\mathbb{R}^n$.
Jun 18, 2018 at 9:51 comment added Gro-Tsen If this is true for surfaces, then it should be true in arbitrary dimension, right? Because it would imply constant sectional curvature.
Jun 18, 2018 at 7:58 comment added Ali Taghavi Is isometryic congruent equivalent to "Edge lengths the same, vertex angle the same", as you wrote in your question?And does this equivalency characterize non negative constant curvature?
Jun 18, 2018 at 3:07 answer added Zurab Silagadze timeline score: 14
Jun 18, 2018 at 2:19 answer added j.c. timeline score: 5
Jun 17, 2018 at 23:17 history asked Joseph O'Rourke CC BY-SA 4.0