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Apr 13, 2022 at 2:03 comment added Seven I was confused because in the line just before that you said "$\pi_1 \boxtimes \pi_2$ ought to denote a representation of the product of groups $\mathrm{GL}_{n_1}(F) \times \mathrm{GL}_{n_2}(F)$" and I can't reconcile the two. Maybe I'm missing something obvious here.
Apr 13, 2022 at 1:53 comment added Peter Humphries @Seven No, the resulting representation is a representation of $\mathrm{GL}_{n_1 n_2}(F)$.
Apr 13, 2022 at 1:52 comment added Seven When you describe $\boxtimes$ as a map from $\mathcal{R}(\mathrm{GL}_{n_1}(F)) \times \mathcal{R}(\mathrm{GL}_{n_2}(F))$, shouldn't the target be $\mathcal{R}(\mathrm{GL}_{n_1}(F) \times \mathrm{GL}_{n_2}(F))$?
Jun 28, 2021 at 16:14 history edited Peter Humphries CC BY-SA 4.0
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Aug 4, 2020 at 1:52 history edited Peter Humphries CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jun 11, 2018 at 18:38 comment added D_S This is an excellent answer, thank you. When we are talking about the representation $\pi_1 \boxplus \pi_2$ of $\operatorname{GL}_{n_1+n_2}(F)$, is there a more precise statement of which "suitable irreducible subquotient" of $\textrm{Ind}_{MN}^{\textrm{GL}_{n_1+n_2}(F)} \pi_1 \boxtimes \pi_2$ is meant?
Jun 11, 2018 at 18:34 vote accept D_S
Jun 11, 2018 at 15:16 comment added GH from MO For Rankin-Selberg $L$-functions, there is also a nice summary in the Appendix of Rudnick-Sarnak: Zeros of principal $L$-functions and random matrix theory (see projecteuclid.org/euclid.dmj/1077245671).
Jun 11, 2018 at 14:59 history edited Peter Humphries CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jun 11, 2018 at 13:59 history answered Peter Humphries CC BY-SA 4.0