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May 31, 2018 at 19:27 vote accept ABB
May 31, 2018 at 17:44 review Close votes
Jun 1, 2018 at 0:43
May 31, 2018 at 17:42 answer added Pietro Majer timeline score: 9
May 31, 2018 at 16:22 answer added Nate Eldredge timeline score: 7
May 31, 2018 at 14:27 comment added Nate Eldredge I think that a separable Banach space without the approximation property would be a counterexample. I'll try to write down a proof in a couple of hours, but I wonder if there is something easier.
May 31, 2018 at 14:21 comment added Jochen Glueck Do you know whether this is true for, say, Banach spaces?
May 31, 2018 at 12:26 history edited ABB CC BY-SA 4.0
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May 31, 2018 at 10:33 history edited ABB CC BY-SA 4.0
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May 31, 2018 at 8:40 history asked ABB CC BY-SA 4.0