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Jun 19, 2018 at 14:40 comment added Robert Furber @SergeiAkbarov I wrote $\mu$ instead of $\kappa$ by force of habit. In the first example, $\kappa$ is defined on the countable-cocountable $\sigma$-algebra, and is not localizable. In the second example, it is defined on the powerset $\sigma$-algebra, and so is localizable. A measure is localizable iff it is semi-finite and the algebra of measurable sets modulo nullsets is a complete Boolean algebra. As the only nullset of the counting measure is the empty set, this comes down to the fact that the countable-cocountable $\sigma$-algebra is not a complete Boolean algebra, but the powerset is.
Jun 19, 2018 at 14:36 history edited Robert Furber CC BY-SA 4.0
Changed $\mu$ to $\kappa$ where it should be.
Jun 5, 2018 at 16:28 comment added Sergei Akbarov Robert, excuse me again, as far as I understand in your first example $\kappa$ and $\mu$ are the same. And if so, $\mu$ is localizable in this case, isn't it?
May 31, 2018 at 19:57 history edited Robert Furber CC BY-SA 4.0
Fixed another missing *.
May 31, 2018 at 18:13 history edited Robert Furber CC BY-SA 4.0
Fixed failure to indicate that the dual space of $L^\infty$ was meant.
May 31, 2018 at 18:12 comment added Robert Furber @SergeiAkbarov Quite right, I'll just fix it.
May 31, 2018 at 17:53 comment added Sergei Akbarov Ah, that's why the integral $\int f d\mu$ exists for each $f\in L^\infty(X,{\mathcal P},\kappa)$... Excuse me. By the way you should write $L^\infty(X,{\mathcal P},\kappa)^*$ (with the star *) when you say that the functional $f\mapsto \int f d\mu$ belongs to $L^\infty(X,{\mathcal P},\kappa)^*$.
May 31, 2018 at 17:22 comment added Robert Furber @SergeiAkbarov It's a probability measure, and therefore finite in the sense of measure theory, unless you mean something else.
May 31, 2018 at 15:33 comment added Sergei Akbarov Robert, I don't understand something in your second example. This measure $\mu:{\mathcal P}(X)\to [0,1]$, it must be finite, isn't it?
May 28, 2018 at 11:05 comment added Robert Furber @PietroMajer It's also relatively easy to prove that $\ell^\infty(X)$ is the dual of $\ell^1(X)$ for all sets $X$, once you know it's true, even without the more general theorem.
May 28, 2018 at 10:58 comment added Robert Furber @PietroMajer The first one is, the second one isn't (which is why I inncluded a second one). $L^\infty(X)$ is the dual of $L^1(X)$ iff $X$ is localizable as a measure space. See, for instance: jstor.org/stable/2372178
May 28, 2018 at 7:46 comment added Pietro Majer These non $\sigma$-finite examples are also counterexamples to $L^\infty(X)$ being the dual of $L^1(X)$, aren't they?
May 28, 2018 at 2:35 history edited Robert Furber CC BY-SA 4.0
changed slip-up "countable measure" -> "counting measure"
May 28, 2018 at 2:18 history answered Robert Furber CC BY-SA 4.0