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If $(X,\tau)$ is a $T_2$-space such that all non-empty open sets are homeomorphic (with the subspace topology) to $X$, is $(X,\tau)$ necessarily homogeneous?
If $(X,\tau)$ is a $T_2$-space such that all non-empty open sets are homeomorphic (with the subspace topology) to $X$, is $(X,\tau)$ necessarily homogeneous?