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Mar 22, 2019 at 11:23 history edited Jochen Wengenroth
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Mar 22, 2019 at 10:12 history edited Schüler CC BY-SA 4.0
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S Mar 22, 2019 at 9:58 history bounty ended Schüler
S Mar 22, 2019 at 9:58 history notice removed Schüler
Mar 22, 2019 at 9:58 vote accept Schüler
Mar 21, 2019 at 10:48 answer added Matthew Daws timeline score: 4
S Mar 21, 2019 at 9:02 history bounty started Schüler
S Mar 21, 2019 at 9:02 history notice added Schüler Current answers are outdated
Mar 21, 2019 at 8:05 history edited Schüler CC BY-SA 4.0
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Mar 18, 2019 at 7:18 vote accept Schüler
Mar 20, 2019 at 16:06
Mar 17, 2019 at 10:42 history edited YCor CC BY-SA 4.0
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Mar 17, 2019 at 9:18 history edited Schüler CC BY-SA 4.0
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May 26, 2018 at 15:39 vote accept Schüler
Mar 17, 2019 at 8:54
May 20, 2018 at 8:09 answer added MSMalekan timeline score: 1
May 19, 2018 at 20:02 history edited Schüler CC BY-SA 4.0
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May 19, 2018 at 19:23 history edited Schüler CC BY-SA 4.0
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May 19, 2018 at 13:48 comment added Jochen Glueck @Schüler: Alright, I see. I missunderstood the definition of the scalar product on the range of $A^{1/2}$. What the authors actually do is to define a scalar product $(\cdot,\cdot)_{R(A^{1/2})}$ on $R(A^{1/2})$ by means of the formula $(x,y)_{R(A^{1/2})} = (PA^{-1/2}x, PA^{-1/2}y)$ for all $x,y \in R(A^{1/2})$. This resolves my concerns; I simply missinterpreted the notation.
May 19, 2018 at 12:24 history edited Schüler CC BY-SA 4.0
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May 18, 2018 at 21:11 comment added Jochen Glueck Considering your first question, I now have severe doubts that this is true. Let $H =\ell^2$, let $M$ be the multiplication with the sequence $(1/n)$. Then $P$ is the identity, but the image of $M^{1/2}$ is a dense and proper subspace of $\ell^2$, and thus, it is not complete with respect to the standard scalar product on $\ell^2$, right?
May 18, 2018 at 14:30 history edited Schüler CC BY-SA 4.0
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May 18, 2018 at 9:16 comment added Schüler @JochenGlueck Please see my edit.
May 18, 2018 at 9:15 history edited Schüler CC BY-SA 4.0
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May 18, 2018 at 7:44 comment added Jochen Glueck Probably I am missing something essential, but why is the norm induced by the inner product $(x,y) \mapsto \langle Px, Py \rangle$ on $\operatorname{Im}(M^{1/2})$ complete?
May 18, 2018 at 7:27 comment added Jochen Glueck @Hannes: Just to add a few details to Schüler's answer to your comment: A bounded linear operator $A$ on a complex Hilbert space is self-adjoint if and only if $\langle Ax, x\rangle \in \mathbb{R}$ for all vectors $x$; this follows from the polarisation identity.
May 17, 2018 at 15:38 comment added Schüler Yes M is selfadjoint since it is positive.
May 17, 2018 at 14:41 comment added Hannes Also, it is implicitly assumed that $M$ is selfadjoint, no? (Since $\langle \cdot,\cdot\rangle_M$ is supposed to be a (semi-) inner product.)
May 17, 2018 at 14:29 comment added Hannes Completion of $F/\operatorname{Ker}(M)$ with respect to the $\langle\cdot,\cdot\rangle_M$ norm?
May 17, 2018 at 14:11 answer added solway timeline score: 5
May 17, 2018 at 13:36 comment added YCor Yes, a Hilbert space is determined up to linear isometry by its dimension (in the Hilbert sense: cardinal of an orthogonal basis). This is one of the very first things to know about a Hilbert space.
May 17, 2018 at 13:00 history edited Schüler CC BY-SA 4.0
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May 17, 2018 at 13:00 comment added Schüler @YCor But we work in infinite dimensionel Hilbert spaces
May 17, 2018 at 12:56 comment added YCor Oh, actually these are two Hilbert spaces, so the whole point is to check that they have the same dimension...
May 17, 2018 at 12:25 history edited Schüler CC BY-SA 4.0
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May 17, 2018 at 12:11 comment added YCor Why do you expect this to be true?
May 17, 2018 at 12:09 history asked Schüler CC BY-SA 4.0