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May 18, 2018 at 13:43 answer added Iosif Pinelis timeline score: 2
May 18, 2018 at 6:14 history edited dineshdileep CC BY-SA 4.0
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May 18, 2018 at 6:06 comment added dineshdileep yes it does. Updated the question to reflect that.
May 17, 2018 at 11:23 history edited Andrés E. Caicedo
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May 17, 2018 at 9:00 comment added Pietro Majer it's not quite clear what is the question: will you state it more precisely? Also, does "the feasible set of this set of inequalities" mean the set $\cap_{1\le i \le n}\{x\in\mathbb{R}^n : f_i(x)\le0\}$?
May 17, 2018 at 6:50 history edited dineshdileep CC BY-SA 4.0
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May 17, 2018 at 6:42 history asked dineshdileep CC BY-SA 4.0