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May 16, 2018 at 12:44 vote accept Jhon M.
May 16, 2018 at 8:30 answer added user106723 timeline score: 3
May 15, 2018 at 18:41 comment added Mohan As @abx comment says, if not injective, you can reduce to the case of finite dimensional case easily. For example, if $u$ as in the comment is not injective, you have $u(\sum \alpha_i\otimes \beta_i)=0$, a finite sum and each of the $\alpha_i,\beta_i$ involve only finitely many basis elements.
May 15, 2018 at 16:36 comment added abx Put $M=k^{(I)}$ and $N=k^{(J)}$. What you are asking is whether the natural map $u:A^{I}\otimes _A A^{J}\rightarrow A^{I\times J}$ satisfying $u((x_i)\otimes (y_j))=(x_iy_j)$ is injective. I would guess this is true, but I don't see an argument right now.
May 15, 2018 at 16:31 review Close votes
May 15, 2018 at 23:04
May 15, 2018 at 15:39 review First posts
May 15, 2018 at 15:46
May 15, 2018 at 15:38 history asked Jhon M. CC BY-SA 4.0