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May 5, 2018 at 13:47 vote accept T. Amdeberhan
May 4, 2018 at 20:48 comment added YCor The argument gives you in addition an estimate in the number of consecutive steps with a given sign.
May 4, 2018 at 20:38 comment added Bonbon @T.Amdeberhan As is explained by YCor in his comments before, $arctan\frac{1}{k}\rightarrow 0$ as $k\rightarrow \infty$, while the sign changes once you go $\frac{\pi}{2}$, $a_k$ can't just skip a $\frac{\pi}{2}$ and keep the sign of $b_k$,
May 4, 2018 at 20:30 comment added T. Amdeberhan Thanks, but it is possible that the $a_k\rightarrow-\infty$ and yet $b_k>0$ all the time. This needs justification, I presume.
May 4, 2018 at 19:52 comment added Bonbon Yes, a great comment!
May 4, 2018 at 19:45 comment added YCor It's very nice. If you need more details, the sequence $a_k$ is decreasing to $-\infty$ with jumps going to 0, so its tangent achieves infinitely many change signs. The trick is quite natural: your homographies can be viewed in the projective line (given by rotations), and with a coordinate changes this can be viewed as standard rotations, which after taking these parameters (on the universal covering), yield translations.
May 4, 2018 at 19:19 comment added Bonbon @T.Amdeberhan where makes it "not sure"? You mean $b_i$ may be zero ? If you mean this, its my fault. I should write it as $b_i=cot(a_i)=tan(\frac{\pi}{4}-a_i)$.
May 4, 2018 at 19:11 history edited YCor CC BY-SA 4.0
latexified tan
May 4, 2018 at 17:23 comment added T. Amdeberhan Not sure if this proves the claim.
May 4, 2018 at 16:45 comment added Bonbon Note that if $b_1=0$ we can take $a_1=\frac{\pi}{2}$
May 4, 2018 at 16:35 history answered Bonbon CC BY-SA 4.0