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Timeline for A seemingly Groebnerizable problem

Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0

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Apr 18, 2018 at 21:35 vote accept Igor Rivin
Apr 18, 2018 at 19:29 answer added Zach Teitler timeline score: 5
Apr 16, 2018 at 22:25 comment added Igor Rivin @ZachTeitler Actually, never mind, I see now.
Apr 16, 2018 at 22:04 comment added Igor Rivin @ZachTeitler What I had meant was: is there any hypersurface for which $\mathcal{Q}$ was non-empty. Will's (and yours) answer pretty clearly says "no" (but I wasn't sure if I was missing anything...)
Apr 16, 2018 at 21:29 comment added R. van Dobben de Bruyn @IgorRivin: an example of a polynomial satisfying the condition is any polynomial $p$ divisible by $x_ix_j$ for $i \neq j$, and linear combinations of such.
Apr 16, 2018 at 21:29 comment added Igor Rivin @ZachTeitler Fair enough. However, I don't believe any such hypersurface exists :)
Apr 16, 2018 at 20:57 comment added Zach Teitler @IgorRivin The line through $a=(a_1,\dotsc,a_n)$ parallel to the $k$th coordinate axis is parametrized by, say, $(a_1,\dotsc,a_k+t,\dotsc,a_n)$. The restriction of $p$ to this line is given by $q(t)=p(a_1,\dotsc,a_k+t,\dotsc,a_n)$. Note that $q$ is a polynomial, since $p$ is. The Taylor coefficients of $q$ are exactly the "pure" partial derivatives $\partial^i p/\partial x_k^i$ (perhaps with some factorial factors). So $p$ vanishes on the line $\iff$ $q$ vanishes identically $\iff$ the pure partials vanish at point $a$.
Apr 16, 2018 at 20:53 comment added Igor Rivin @aginensky I am not wise enough in the ways of singularities to confirm or deny what you are saying. Perhaps you could elaborate? Thanks!
Apr 16, 2018 at 20:52 comment added Igor Rivin @ZachTeitler You have just paraphrased Will's statement. Why is what you say true?
Apr 16, 2018 at 20:48 comment added Zach Teitler @IgorRivin Will Sawin's statement follows from the observation that the derivatives $\partial^i p/\partial x_k^i$ vanish at a point $a$ for all $i \geq 0$ if and only if $p$ vanishes identically on the line through $a$ parallel to the $k$th coordinate axis. So $a \in \mathcal{Q}$ if and only if $p$ vanishes identically on the union of the axis-parallel lines through $a$.
Apr 16, 2018 at 20:29 comment added meh Apologies if I am misreading what you are saying, but to say that a point is in that locus is to say that the hypersurface has a singularity of at least multiplicity k at that point. Aren't there bounds on the singularity of hypersurfaces ? At the least projection from the point bounds k at deg(p) - 1.
Apr 16, 2018 at 20:01 comment added Igor Rivin @WillSawin Also, what is an example of a $p$ which satisfies your condition?
Apr 16, 2018 at 19:59 comment added Igor Rivin @WillSawin Why?
Apr 16, 2018 at 19:55 comment added Will Sawin In characteristic zero, $(x_1,\dots,x_n)$ is in $\mathcal Q$ if and only if $p$ vanishes on all the coordinate axes through $(x_1,\dots,x_n)$, i.e. all the lines given by fixing all but one of the coordinates and varying the last. Unlike the classical notion of singularity this depends only on the vanishing locus of $p$.
Apr 16, 2018 at 19:31 comment added Igor Rivin @DimaPasechnik No, I am interested more in $\mathbb{R}, \mathbb{C}.$
Apr 16, 2018 at 18:58 comment added Dima Pasechnik Are you only interested in characteristic p case?
Apr 16, 2018 at 18:40 history asked Igor Rivin CC BY-SA 3.0