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Sep 20 at 13:12 answer added Martin.s timeline score: 0
Apr 7, 2021 at 19:10 comment added darij grinberg And indeed, a solution has appeared in Crux Mathematicorum 47/3 (pp. 141--142). From a quick look, the tactic seems to be "generalize and induct on the new parameters". And sure, this is not the original source for the problem, but it is a new appearance with a potentially new solution.
Feb 10, 2021 at 19:55 comment added Sebastien Palcoux @darijgrinberg: what you mentioned (here) is in 2020. It also appeared in Miklos Schweitzer Competition (here) in 2019. But as far as I know, it appeared first as this MathOverflow post (and was solved) in 2018.
Feb 10, 2021 at 2:17 comment added darij grinberg FYI: This problem has appeared as problem OC500 in the Olympiad Corner of Crux Mathematicorum ( cms.math.ca/publications/crux ) recently. I would expect a solution to appear around issue 47/3.
Feb 5, 2021 at 19:36 answer added atenao timeline score: 3
Nov 16, 2019 at 11:47 answer added Fedor Petrov timeline score: 5
Sep 28, 2018 at 15:09 vote accept Sebastien Palcoux
Jul 15, 2018 at 19:11 answer added Yibo Gao timeline score: 12
May 23, 2018 at 2:09 answer added Sam Hopkins timeline score: 3
Apr 20, 2018 at 2:03 answer added Richard Stanley timeline score: 13
Apr 12, 2018 at 2:38 answer added j.c. timeline score: 2
Apr 9, 2018 at 22:02 comment added Sebastien Palcoux About the Generalized Hockey Stick Identities: pdfs.semanticscholar.org/5a96/…
Apr 9, 2018 at 21:24 comment added user44191 @SebastienPalcoux Also, I just recognized the sum as a generalized hockeystick. $\sum_{\ell=1}^m \frac{m!}{(m-\ell)!} \ell (2m-\ell-1)! = m! \sum_{\ell=1}^m \frac{(2m-\ell-1)!}{(m-\ell)!} \ell = m! (m - 1)! \sum_{\ell = 1}^m \binom{l}{1} \binom{2m - \ell - 1}{m - 1}$ $= m! (m - 1)! \binom{2m}{m + 1} = m! \frac{(2m)!}{(m + 1)!} = \frac{(2m)!}{m + 1}$
Apr 9, 2018 at 21:11 comment added Yuzhou Gu I wrote some little code and verified the formula for $nm \le 1000$.
Apr 9, 2018 at 20:25 comment added user44191 It may be useful to study $\tilde{g}(m, n, i) = \frac{g(m, n, i)}{m! n!}$, which represents the number of collinear orderings that reach each row and column in order. This satisfies the simpler recursion relation $\tilde{g}(m, n, i+1) = (mn - i) \tilde{g}(m, n, i) + n \tilde{g}(m-1, n, i) + m \tilde{g}(m, n-1, i)$, and also keeps the numbers smaller. The conjecture is then that $\tilde{g}(m, n, mn) = \frac{(mn)!}{(m + n - 1)!}$.
Apr 9, 2018 at 19:29 comment added j.c. I've just posted a question inspired by this one here mathoverflow.net/questions/297411/…
Apr 9, 2018 at 16:47 history edited Sebastien Palcoux CC BY-SA 3.0
About the first case in the proof: clarification to avoid confusion.
Apr 9, 2018 at 16:10 comment added Sebastien Palcoux @HughThomas: yes, with the use of WolframAlpha. A direct proof would be better, and useful for the general case.
Apr 9, 2018 at 15:57 comment added Hugh Thomas Let me note that the case $m=2$ is solved in the linked question.
Apr 9, 2018 at 15:37 comment added Per Alexandersson Side note: The formula is a bit similar to en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Catalan_number#Generalizations the super-Catalan numbers (or one of the super versions).
Apr 9, 2018 at 14:18 history asked Sebastien Palcoux CC BY-SA 3.0