Skip to main content
6 events
when toggle format what by license comment
Apr 9, 2018 at 4:50 vote accept lyrically wicked
Apr 7, 2018 at 15:24 comment added Adam P. Goucher Correct, yes, and therefore $E_2$ takes on infinitely many distinct values.
Apr 7, 2018 at 12:11 comment added lyrically wicked In other words, can I assume that there does not exist a finite integer $a$ such that $a$ is greater than any element of the sequence $E_2$?
Apr 6, 2018 at 20:37 comment added Adam P. Goucher $e^{i \pi}$. Collaborative mathematics should not involve unnecessarily circumlocutory and confusing use of notations which disguise meaning rather than elucidate it.
Apr 6, 2018 at 7:39 comment added lyrically wicked Can I assume that $\text{Pr}(P_1 = 1) = 0$ and $\text{Pr}(P_2 = 1) = 1$, but it is not possible to estimate $\text{Pr}(P_2 = 1, P_3 = 1)$ or $\text{Pr}(P_2 = 1, P_3 = 1, P_4 = 1)$, where $\text{Pr}$ denotes the probability, $P_X = 1$ denotes "Possibility $X$ is true" and $\text{Pr}(S) = 1$ denotes "the probability of statement $S$ being true is equal to 100%"?
Apr 5, 2018 at 11:43 history answered Adam P. Goucher CC BY-SA 3.0