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Mar 30, 2018 at 17:58 vote accept user65526
Mar 30, 2018 at 7:03 review Close votes
Apr 5, 2018 at 3:03
Mar 29, 2018 at 19:41 answer added Bjørn Kjos-Hanssen timeline score: 3
Mar 29, 2018 at 17:46 history edited user65526 CC BY-SA 3.0
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Mar 29, 2018 at 17:08 comment added user65526 Ok, but what do you mean by saying "clearly not"? Clearly not what? And why clearly not?
Mar 29, 2018 at 17:06 comment added user65526 How is it hardly any better? Because it makes $\bigcirc$ a rather weak modality?
Mar 29, 2018 at 17:05 comment added Emil Jeřábek No, that's not what I wrote. "Contained in" means contained in, not equal.
Mar 29, 2018 at 17:02 comment added Emil Jeřábek Anyway, the argument from the linked page shows that even without assuming $\neg{\bigcirc}\bot$, you get the schema $\bigcirc A\leftrightarrow A\lor{\bigcirc}\bot$, which is hardly any beter than full modal collapse.
Mar 29, 2018 at 17:01 comment added user65526 Sorry, I didn't understand your response. You are saying that we clearly do not get the modal collapse with $PLL$ plus excluded middle without $\neg \bigcirc \bot$, since $\bigcirc A$ holds for all formuals $A$?
Mar 29, 2018 at 16:54 comment added Emil Jeřábek (1) Clearly not, as the logic is contained in the logic axiomatized by classical logic and $\bigcirc A$ for all formulas $A$.
Mar 29, 2018 at 16:40 history edited user65526 CC BY-SA 3.0
included more background on the logic discussed
Mar 29, 2018 at 15:38 history edited user65526 CC BY-SA 3.0
edited title
Mar 29, 2018 at 15:23 history edited user65526 CC BY-SA 3.0
Made the question shorter
Mar 29, 2018 at 12:55 history asked user65526 CC BY-SA 3.0