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Mar 25, 2018 at 17:41 review Close votes
Apr 9, 2018 at 3:02
Mar 24, 2018 at 15:09 history edited MSMalekan CC BY-SA 3.0
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Mar 24, 2018 at 14:16 answer added Gerald Edgar timeline score: 1
Mar 24, 2018 at 13:59 comment added MSMalekan @PietroMajer: You are right, I made it more clear.
Mar 24, 2018 at 13:58 history edited MSMalekan CC BY-SA 3.0
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Mar 24, 2018 at 10:39 comment added Pietro Majer Note that a sequence of linearly independent elements can possibly be a convergent sequence $x_n\to x$, which forces $y_n=Tx_n\to Tx$, so $(y_n)$ can't be arbitrary. Maybe you should restate more clearly the question.
Mar 24, 2018 at 7:33 history edited MSMalekan CC BY-SA 3.0
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Mar 24, 2018 at 7:25 comment added MSMalekan @NateEldredge: By your argument no such sequence $\{\phi_n\}$ exists. Thank you!
Mar 24, 2018 at 7:18 comment added MSMalekan @NateEldredge I mean a bounded sequence. It is fixed now.
Mar 24, 2018 at 7:14 history edited MSMalekan CC BY-SA 3.0
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Mar 24, 2018 at 5:52 comment added Nate Eldredge What does "normal element" mean? Does it mean $\|x_n\| = 1$? If so then the condition $\langle x_n, \phi_n \rangle = 1$ forces $\|\phi_n\| \ge 1$ and $\sum \|\phi_n\| = \infty$.
Mar 24, 2018 at 5:52 comment added user1688 What is a normal element?
Mar 24, 2018 at 5:41 history asked MSMalekan CC BY-SA 3.0