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Apr 4, 2018 at 20:26 comment added Carlo Beenakker update at mathoverflow.net/q/296566/11260
Mar 22, 2018 at 11:39 comment added Ben McKay The maximum principle tells us that $u$ is everywhere zero, as both $u$ and $-u$ are harmonic, so achieve their maxima on the boundary, as Michael Renardy says.
S Mar 22, 2018 at 4:40 history suggested David G. Stork CC BY-SA 3.0
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Mar 21, 2018 at 23:20 review Suggested edits
S Mar 22, 2018 at 4:40
Mar 21, 2018 at 17:15 comment added fedja Peter, have you paid attention to what Michael said? The only harmonic $u$ that satisfies the Dirichlet boundary condition you imposed is identically $0$, so editing the normalization condition won't help much: the problem is just nonsensical as posed. Perhaps, you meant something else (say no boundary condition, just the normalization itself).
Mar 21, 2018 at 17:12 comment added Peter I made a typo. It should be $\int u^2(x,y)dxdy=1$. It is a usual normalization, which is fix a constant.
Mar 21, 2018 at 17:09 history edited Peter CC BY-SA 3.0
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Mar 21, 2018 at 15:26 comment added Michael Renardy Aren't solutions of the Dirichlet problem unique? How can the integral of u be 1?
Mar 21, 2018 at 13:06 comment added Dirk I guess the buzz word is "free boundary problem"
Mar 21, 2018 at 11:59 history edited Peter CC BY-SA 3.0
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Mar 21, 2018 at 11:24 review First posts
Mar 21, 2018 at 11:29
Mar 21, 2018 at 11:21 history asked Peter CC BY-SA 3.0