Yes. TheYes, that is true. This is a consequence of the classical trace inequality forTrace Theorem for Sobolev spaces that. The proof can be found in many textbooksany textbook on Sobolev spaces for example in Evans' Partial Differential Equations. I will provide more details laterThe usual statement of the trace theorem deals with traces of $T:W^{1,p}(\Omega)\to L^p(\partial\Omega)$, but the proof would also give traces $T:W^{1,p}([0,T]\times Y)\to L^p(\{ t\}\times Y)$. If $u\in W^{2,p}$, then the derivative is in $W^{1,p}$ so the trace of the derivative is in $L^p$ and since the derivative of the trace is the trace of the derivative (roughly speaking) we obtain the trace $T:W^{2,p}([0,T]\times Y)\to W^{1,p}(\{ t\}\times Y)$.