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Mar 17, 2018 at 5:22 history edited Mariano Suárez-Álvarez CC BY-SA 3.0
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Mar 15, 2018 at 8:28 comment added François Brunault If $R=R_1 \times R_2$ for some integral domains $R_1,R_2$ then the resultant $R_{r,s}$ over $R$ is reducible for a rather silly reason: using the isomorphism $R[a_i,b_j] = R_1[a_i,b_j] \times R_2[a_i,b_j]$ we have $R_{r,s} = (R_{r,s},1) \cdot (1,R_{r,s})$ and none of the factors is a unit. Irreducibility is not well-behaved for such rings, one may try to replace it by some kind of local irreducibiliy (note $\operatorname{Spec} R = \operatorname{Spec} R_1 \sqcup \operatorname{Spec} R_2$) as in the answers of this question mathoverflow.net/questions/63899
Mar 14, 2018 at 9:40 comment added Jason Starr In many such question, e.g., the one linked below, the question is not about irreducibility of resultants of polynomials whose coefficients are each variables, but results of polynomials "derived" from some other "universal" object: mathoverflow.net/questions/156586/…
Mar 14, 2018 at 8:27 history edited Mariano Suárez-Álvarez CC BY-SA 3.0
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Mar 14, 2018 at 8:24 comment added François Brunault One has to exclude the cases $r=0$ and $s=0$ because $\operatorname{res}_{r,0}(f,b_0) = b_0^r$ and $\operatorname{res}_{0,s}(a_0,g) = a_0^s$.
Mar 14, 2018 at 8:10 history edited Mariano Suárez-Álvarez CC BY-SA 3.0
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Mar 14, 2018 at 7:53 history asked Mariano Suárez-Álvarez CC BY-SA 3.0