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Mar 12, 2018 at 7:15 history closed David Handelman
Chris Godsil
Ben McKay
Stefan Kohl
Stefan Waldmann
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Mar 10, 2018 at 8:17 vote accept Jokerr
Mar 9, 2018 at 22:27 comment added Gerald Edgar When $\phi$ is bijective, your definition is fine. But if $\phi$ is not injective it is not what you want. A nice measure-preserving map is $x \mapsto (2x \;\mathrm{ mod }\; 1)$ on $[0,1)$ with Lebesgue measure. This satisfies the correct definition, but not yours.
Mar 9, 2018 at 21:31 comment added D. Thomine See also this Math.Stackexchange thread: math.stackexchange.com/questions/1768257/…
Mar 9, 2018 at 21:19 comment added Johannes Hahn For one thing, $\mu(\phi(A))$ isn't even defined in general.
Mar 9, 2018 at 20:23 review Close votes
Mar 12, 2018 at 7:15
Mar 9, 2018 at 20:18 answer added Iosif Pinelis timeline score: 3
Mar 9, 2018 at 19:45 comment added LSpice Suppose that $S = \{a, b\}$, with $\mu(a) = 0$ and $\mu(b) = 1$. Then the constant function at $b$ is measure-preserving, but doesn't satisfy your definition.
Mar 9, 2018 at 19:43 review First posts
Mar 9, 2018 at 20:04
Mar 9, 2018 at 19:32 history asked Jokerr CC BY-SA 3.0