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Mar 9, 2018 at 16:32 comment added Targaryen @HannesThiel Thanks a lot for your clarification!
Mar 8, 2018 at 13:53 comment added Hannes Thiel You are right. The equation you write holds for every c.p.c. map. At this point, the assumption of "order zero" is not needed. However, at the part of the paper by Winter-Zacharias that you are reading, it is shown that a c.p.c. order zero $\varphi\colon A\to B$ induces a map $\mathrm{Cu}(\varphi)\colon\mathrm{Cu}(A)\to\mathrm{Cu}(B)$ between the respective Cuntz semigroups. A general c.p.c. map need not preserves Cuntz (sub)equivalence, which is why the assumption of order zero is needed.
Mar 7, 2018 at 5:48 history asked Targaryen CC BY-SA 3.0