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Mar 2, 2018 at 20:29 comment added Steve Your hypothesis sounds reasonable for $\varepsilon > 1/q$, but since you construct $X$ and $Y$ to be identically distributed, won't this always fail if $\varepsilon < 1/q$ since then (for iid random variables), one has $P(X=Y) \geq 1/q$? In other words, the equation for alpha has no real solution in this case. (Or is your hypothesis only for the case $\varepsilon > 1/q$?)
Feb 26, 2018 at 23:41 review First posts
Feb 27, 2018 at 2:57
Feb 26, 2018 at 23:37 history asked Nikita CC BY-SA 3.0