Skip to main content
10 events
when toggle format what by license comment
S Mar 2, 2018 at 23:06 history bounty ended truebaran
S Mar 2, 2018 at 23:06 history notice removed truebaran
Mar 2, 2018 at 23:06 vote accept truebaran
Feb 27, 2018 at 12:20 answer added Johannes Nordström timeline score: 6
S Feb 23, 2018 at 0:38 history bounty started truebaran
S Feb 23, 2018 at 0:38 history notice added truebaran Canonical answer required
Feb 17, 2018 at 17:46 comment added Arun Debray Ah, of course; sorry about that. One way to do that would be to prove it for the universal bundle over $\mathit{BSpin}^c$, but there ought to be an easier proof.
Feb 17, 2018 at 13:58 comment added truebaran This is exactly my point: I would like to prove that $w_2(E)$ is precisely mod 2 reduction of $c_1(L_E)$.In order to prove this I managed to show that both sides are natural wih respect to pullbacks and both side vanish on spin bundles. The remaning part is that this mod 2 reduction does not vanish if the bundle is not spin and this boils down to my original question. So how you can show that $w_2(E)$ is mod 2 reduction of $c_1(L_E)$?
Feb 17, 2018 at 3:54 comment added Arun Debray Since $E$ is a spin^c bundle, $w_2(E)$ is the mod 2 reduction of $c_1(L_E)$ (here $w_2$ is the second Stiefel-Whitney class). $w_2$ is precisely the obstruction for a spin structure, so since $E$ is not spin, $w_2(E)\ne 0$, and hence $c_1(L_E)$ is odd.
Feb 16, 2018 at 23:30 history asked truebaran CC BY-SA 3.0