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Feb 19, 2018 at 13:06 vote accept King Kong
Feb 19, 2018 at 12:17 comment added Iosif Pinelis @BenEva : You can always replace $f$ by $\tilde f:=f-c$, where $c$ is any constant; in particular, you can take $c=f(1)$, thus making $\tilde f(1)=0$, if desired. Then $D_f(P||Q)$ will get replaced by $D_{f-c}(P||Q)=D_f(P||Q)-c$, which clearly will not affect the minimizing $Q$ at all.
Feb 19, 2018 at 11:26 comment added King Kong Thanks a lot for the very helpful answer (and sorry if the question wasn't clearly phrased). I just have one more question. Isn't it normally assumed that f(1) = 0 for any f-divergence? This doesn't seem to be satisfied by the counterexample?
Feb 18, 2018 at 5:42 comment added Iosif Pinelis I have added a remark about how the above counterexample was obtained.
Feb 18, 2018 at 4:51 history edited Iosif Pinelis CC BY-SA 3.0
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Feb 18, 2018 at 4:39 history edited Iosif Pinelis CC BY-SA 3.0
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Feb 16, 2018 at 21:35 history edited Iosif Pinelis CC BY-SA 3.0
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Feb 16, 2018 at 21:24 history answered Iosif Pinelis CC BY-SA 3.0