On the other hand, $D_f(P||Q)=\int_S g(K)\,dP$, where $K:=\frac{dQ}{dP}$ and \begin{equation*} g(k):=k\,f(\tfrac1k),\quad\text{with }g(0):=g(0+),\ g(\infty):=g(\infty-). \end{equation*}\begin{equation*} g(k):=k\,f(\tfrac1k),\quad\text{with }g(0):=g(0+),\ g(\infty):=g(\infty-). \tag{1} \end{equation*} The latter formula defines a map of the set of all functions $f\colon[0,\infty]\to(-\infty,\infty]$ that are convex and continuous on $[0,\infty]$ and finite on $(0,\infty)$ onto the same set (in fact, this map is an involution and hence bijective). So, by Jensen's inequality, \begin{equation*} D_f(P||Q)=E_P g(K)=E_P\,E_P(g(K)|\Sigma_0)\ge E_P g(K_0),\quad\text{where } K_0:=E_P(K|\Sigma_0) \end{equation*} and $E_P$ denotes the expectation with respect to the measure $P$. So, without loss of generality (wlog) $K$ is $\Sigma_0$-measurable and hence takes constant values, say $k_1,k_2,k_3$, on the sets $A\setminus B,A\cap B,S\setminus A$. That is, wlog $S=\{1,2,3\}$, as in the above counterexample. Thus, the measures $P$ and $Q$ are no longer infinite-dimensional objects; they are now completely represented by their values on the sets $A\setminus B,A\cap B,S\setminus A$: say $p_1,p_2,p_3$ for $P$ and hence $k_1p_1,k_2p_2,k_3p_3$ for $Q$. Accordingly, now we can write \begin{equation*} D_f(P||Q)=\sum_1^3 g(k_i)p_i. \end{equation*} We need to minimize this in $k_1,k_2,k_3\ge0$ subject to the linear restrictions $k_1p_1+k_2p_2+k_3p_3=1$ and $k_2p_2=q(k_1p_1+k_2p_2)$, the latter restriction representing $Q(A\cap B)=qQ(A)$. The condition $q \geq P(B|A)$ can now be rewritten as $vp_2=q(p_1+p_2)$ for some $v\ge1$. Writing the Lagrange multipliers system, we see that the dependence on the convex function $g$, an infinite-dimensional object, is reduced to the dependence on just the three numbers $h_i:=g'(k_i)$, such that the function $k_i\mapsto h_i$ is nondecreasing, that is, $(h_i-h_j)(k_i-k_j)\ge0$ for all $i,j$ in $\{1,2,3\}$.
The inequality $Q_f(A)\le P(A)$ in question in the (now justified) reduced setting can be rewritten as $k_1p_1+k_2p_2\le p_1+p_2$. Thus, it remains to check whether the latter inequality is implied by the system of algebraic equations and inequalities described above, involving the 10 real variables $p_1,p_2,p_3,k_1,k_2,k_3,v,h_1,h_2,h_3$. With the help of a computer algebra package, we find the above counterexample showing that the implication in question fails to hold in general. (Given the numbers $h_i$ such that $(h_i-h_j)(k_i-k_j)\ge0$ for all $i,j$, we can find any number of convex functions $g$ such that $h_i=g'(k_i)$ for $i=1,2,3$; I took one of such functions $g$ and then obtained $f$ from $g$ using the involution formula (1).)