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Feb 14, 2018 at 16:56 vote accept Littlefield
Feb 14, 2018 at 14:01 answer added Nik Weaver timeline score: 10
Feb 14, 2018 at 13:04 comment added Nik Weaver Argh, I meant to delete that part! Give me a minute to think of a counterexample.
Feb 14, 2018 at 12:48 comment added Littlefield Yes, by dual pairs I understand that $Y$ separates points of $X$. So, why is the answer yes?
Feb 14, 2018 at 12:47 comment added Nik Weaver @Littlefield: think harder about the fact that the $\sigma(X,Y)$ topology may be non-Hausdorff. Or did you want to assume that $Y$ separates points of $X$? Then the answer is yes.
Feb 14, 2018 at 11:59 comment added Littlefield This is not enough, as far as I see. For instance, consider $X:=(R^2,|\cdot|_2$. If $\langle X,Y\rangle$ is a dual pair with $Y$ one dimensional, then $Y$ is spanned by a vector $(x_1,x_2)$ with $x_i\neq 0$. Then that weak convergence of sequences in $B_X$ is equivalent to the strong convergence.
Feb 14, 2018 at 11:37 comment added erz Consider $X$ to be of dimension at least $2$ and $Y$ to be a one-dimensional subspace of $X^*$ with the norm of $X^*$.
Feb 14, 2018 at 9:36 review First posts
Feb 14, 2018 at 9:38
Feb 14, 2018 at 9:35 history asked Littlefield CC BY-SA 3.0