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Feb 24, 2018 at 10:49 answer added Jesse Elliott timeline score: 1
Feb 15, 2018 at 2:52 comment added Sándor Kovács I don't think there is any non-trivial condition that gives you this. On one hand you always have $J\subseteq \mathrm{Ann}(\mathrm{Ann}(J))$. On the other hand if $J\subsetneq \mathrm{Ann}(\mathrm{Ann}(J))$, then let $t\in \mathrm{Ann}(\mathrm{Ann}(J))\setminus J$ and $I=(t)$. Then this $I$ satisfies the condition, but the desired statement fails. The only way to guarantee this is that $J= \mathrm{Ann}(\mathrm{Ann}(J))$, but that's a trivial condition.
Feb 14, 2018 at 19:12 comment added rschwieb I haven't been able to think of any nontrivial conditions (e.g. when $R$ is a dual ring, and $Ann(Ann(J))=J$ for all $J$.) Is there some motivation for a connection you could share?
Feb 14, 2018 at 6:27 comment added Viktor Vaughn @AlecRhea An ideal is an $R$-module.
Feb 14, 2018 at 6:21 history edited Martin Sleziak CC BY-SA 3.0
Removed deprecated (abstract-algebra) tag - see the tag info: https://mathoverflow.net/tags/abstract-algebra/info (if there are some other suitable tags, choose them instead.)
Feb 14, 2018 at 6:11 comment added Alec Rhea Is the existence of some $R$-module supposed to be implicit here? What is $J$ annihilating things in? I am not an expert in commutative algebra by any means, so forgive me if this is a common convention.
Feb 14, 2018 at 5:49 review First posts
Feb 14, 2018 at 7:43
Feb 14, 2018 at 5:48 history asked Nemool CC BY-SA 3.0