Timeline for Is height preserved in a normalization?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
6 events
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| Feb 9, 2018 at 19:01 | comment | added | Neil Epstein | @GeorgesElencwajg Yes. And it's probably a question Ratliff in particular has known the answer to for 40 years, if he ever thought about it. But most general algebraists probably just assume it's false, whereas people who are happy to assume everything is excellent (e.g. f.g. over a field) just assume it's true in good situations, and everyone is satisfied. But my coauthor and I really needed the answer, in particular in the case of height 1, in our initial study on perinormality. So we found it. | |
| Feb 9, 2018 at 17:00 | vote | accept | Georges Elencwajg | ||
| Feb 9, 2018 at 17:00 | comment | added | Georges Elencwajg | Thank you for solving my problem Neil. I find it puzzling that a naïve question about a basic notion, which could have been asked and solved 60 years ago, is not evoked in a single book on commutative algebra or algebraic geometry that I know of. | |
| Feb 9, 2018 at 4:47 | history | edited | Neil Epstein | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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| Feb 8, 2018 at 22:33 | history | edited | Neil Epstein | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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| Feb 8, 2018 at 22:22 | history | answered | Neil Epstein | CC BY-SA 3.0 |