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Jun 23, 2010 at 16:33 comment added François G. Dorais But there are some reasons to expect that this can be done uniformly in $n$. Namely, when the $a_n$ are compact sets in some topological space and, in particular, when the $a_n$ are finite sets.
Jun 23, 2010 at 16:29 vote accept thedude
Jun 23, 2010 at 15:51 history answered Cap Khoury CC BY-SA 2.5