Timeline for Do "associative" connections exist / arise naturally in some context?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
9 events
when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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Feb 11, 2018 at 14:21 | comment | added | მამუკა ჯიბლაძე | It is believable but not entirely obvious: since $f(p)=d_pf=0$, then I believe also $df(Y)=0$ at $p$ for any $Y$. I understand this does not imply there is no $X$ with $X\cdot(Y\cdot f)$ nonzero at $p$ but still - to have an explicit example would be better I believe | |
Feb 9, 2018 at 15:16 | comment | added | M.G. | @Sebastian: thanks for the nice counterexample! I guess I was too enthusiastic at first. | |
Feb 9, 2018 at 13:04 | vote | accept | M.G. | ||
Feb 9, 2018 at 5:59 | comment | added | Sebastian | I mean $Y\cdot f=df(Y)$ and $X\cdot Y\cdot f=X\cdot(Y\cdot f)$. | |
Feb 9, 2018 at 2:09 | comment | added | Qfwfq | @მამუკა ჯიბლაძე: I presume it's $Y$ acting on $f$ as a derivation (but let's Sebastian confirm or not) | |
Feb 8, 2018 at 21:01 | comment | added | მამუკა ჯიბლაძე | And what is $Y\cdot f$? | |
Feb 8, 2018 at 19:52 | history | edited | Sebastian | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
added 2 characters in body
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Feb 8, 2018 at 19:47 | comment | added | Qfwfq | Does $X\cdot Y$ denote composition as differential operators or the product in the OP? | |
Feb 8, 2018 at 19:26 | history | answered | Sebastian | CC BY-SA 3.0 |