Timeline for Function is almost everywhere 1 w.r.t. sequence of regular Borel probability measures
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
2 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Feb 5, 2018 at 15:03 | comment | added | Nate Eldredge | It would also work to let $\mu_n$ be a Dirac measure at $1/n$, which would force $f(0)=1$. | |
| Feb 5, 2018 at 7:43 | history | answered | François Le Maître | CC BY-SA 3.0 |