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Jun 10, 2018 at 14:48 answer added Michael Albanese timeline score: 4
Feb 9, 2018 at 9:10 answer added Yonatan Harpaz timeline score: 5
Feb 7, 2018 at 14:12 comment added Michael Albanese In particular, spin implies the linking form is alternating, but as your example demonstrates, the converse is not true.
Feb 7, 2018 at 14:11 comment added Michael Albanese You're absolutely right, I was being sloppy. What I should have said is that $w_2(x) = b(x, x)$ where $b$ is the linking form, $x \in H_2(M; \mathbb{Z})_{\text{tors}}$ and $w_2$ is viewed as a map $H_2(M; \mathbb{Z}) \to \mathbb{Z}_2$ via the isomorphism $H^2(M; \mathbb{Z}_2) \cong \operatorname{Hom}(H_2(M; \mathbb{Z}), \mathbb{Z}_2)$ by the Universal Coefficient Theorem (as $H_1(M; \mathbb{Z})$ is torsion-free, there is not $\operatorname{Ext}$ term). So the correct statement is that $b$ is alternating iff $w_2 : H_2(M; \mathbb{Z})_{\text{tors}} \to \mathbb{Z}_2$ is zero.
Feb 6, 2018 at 23:42 comment added user84144 Is there something wrong with the following example? Consider $M = \mathbb{CP}^2 \times S^1$. Then $H^3(M; \mathbb{Z}) = \mathbb{Z}$, so the domain of the linking form is actually $0$, which I think qualifies it to be alternating. On the other hand, $w_2(M)$ is the reduction of $c_1(\mathbb{CP}^2)$, which is certainly not $0$.
Feb 6, 2018 at 16:59 comment added Michael Albanese I think Wall's criterion ($w_2 = 0$) applies whenever $H_1$ is torsion-free, not just when the manifold simply connected.
Jan 31, 2018 at 14:56 history asked user84144 CC BY-SA 3.0