Skip to main content
8 events
when toggle format what by license comment
May 21, 2018 at 4:27 history edited user111492 CC BY-SA 4.0
added 207 characters in body
Jan 28, 2018 at 23:49 comment added Raymond Cheng @R.vanDobbendeBruyn: Great, yes: $R/p$ still has the class represented by $t(t^2 - 1)$. Thanks (:
Jan 28, 2018 at 23:27 comment added R. van Dobben de Bruyn @RaymondCheng: your element $p$ is not prime (but it is irreducible). The ring is $k[x,y]/(y^2-x^3-x^2)$, so if $p = x$ then the quotient is $k[y]/(y^2)$, not $k$.
Jan 28, 2018 at 23:04 comment added Raymond Cheng No, even if $R$ is assumed to be Noetherian. For an example, let $k$ be a field and set $R = k[t^2 - 1, t(t^2 - 1)]$. Then $p = t^2 - 1$ is a prime element since $R/pR = k$ is an integral domain. However, the normalization $\overline R \cong k[t]$ and $p = (t - 1)(t + 1)$ there. This example comes from geometry: $R$ here is the coordinate ring of a nodal cubic, and the prime element $p$ corresponds to the node at the origin. When you normalize, the node splits off into two points, and so the pullback of this prime element factors into two smaller things.
Jan 28, 2018 at 21:29 answer added R. van Dobben de Bruyn timeline score: 7
Jan 28, 2018 at 9:48 history edited user111492 CC BY-SA 3.0
added 85 characters in body; edited tags
Jan 28, 2018 at 7:22 history edited user111492 CC BY-SA 3.0
added 304 characters in body
Jan 28, 2018 at 7:06 history asked user111492 CC BY-SA 3.0