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Jan 27, 2018 at 7:45 comment added Trevor Wilson @bof There's a surjection from $\mathbb{R}$ to $\aleph_1$, so there's a surjection from $\mathcal{P}(\mathbb{R})$ to $\mathcal{P}(\aleph_1)$, which we can compose with a surjection from $\mathcal{P}(\aleph_1)$ to $\aleph_2$.
Jan 27, 2018 at 7:25 comment added bof Why is there always a surjection from $\mathcal P(\mathbb R)$ to $ \aleph_2?$ Is that supposed to be obvious?
Jan 27, 2018 at 7:14 vote accept Trevor Wilson
Jan 27, 2018 at 7:01 comment added Asaf Karagila The problem with you people of determinacy and inner models is that you always think in terms of large cardinals and $L(\Bbb R)$ style models... But the answer is often simpler than that! :)
Jan 27, 2018 at 7:00 answer added Asaf Karagila timeline score: 9
Jan 27, 2018 at 3:53 history asked Trevor Wilson CC BY-SA 3.0