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Jan 25, 2018 at 3:54 history edited j.c. CC BY-SA 3.0
fix typo in title
Jan 25, 2018 at 3:29 history edited Pedro Lauridsen Ribeiro CC BY-SA 3.0
Small grammer correction
Jan 24, 2018 at 20:05 comment added Arnaud Mortier In fact the good notion should be a notion of genericity between two maps $X\rightarrow Y$ that implies in particular that the set where the two maps agree is discrete, and the required property should be for $f$ here to be generic with respect to Id$_M$.
Jan 24, 2018 at 14:22 comment added user119986 I am interesting in the transversality of $\tilde{N}$ and $f(\tilde{N})$ where $\tilde{N}$ is the perturbation of $N$. Not $f(\tilde{N})$ and $N$...
Jan 24, 2018 at 14:19 comment added PVAL @Arnaud I think you misread the question. The OP asking if for a submanifold $N$, does there exist a deformation $N_d$ of $N$ with $f(N_d)$ transverse to $N_d$. This is clearly never exists for $f$ the identity unless dim N= dim M.
Jan 24, 2018 at 14:01 comment added Arnaud Mortier Welcome to MO! "trivially it can not be done for the identity map"? I would rather say trivially it can be done with the identity map, you can make a submanifold transverse to itself with arbitrarily small deformations.
Jan 24, 2018 at 13:59 review First posts
Jan 24, 2018 at 14:02
Jan 24, 2018 at 13:55 history asked user119986 CC BY-SA 3.0