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Jan 19, 2018 at 17:23 comment added Pietro Majer @David E Speyer, yes, I also noticed that.
Jan 19, 2018 at 16:25 history edited Pietro Majer CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jan 19, 2018 at 15:47 comment added Pedro Lauridsen Ribeiro This is a neat counterexample - thanks David!
Jan 19, 2018 at 15:19 comment added David E Speyer I uploaded some figures in a separate answer.
Jan 19, 2018 at 15:01 comment added David E Speyer In one variable, if $f(0)=f'(0)=0$ and $f''(0) =c>0$, then I get that $g_n''(0)=c$ for all $n$, so $g''_n$ does not approach $0$.
Jan 19, 2018 at 10:22 comment added Pietro Majer I made a cleaner version. As to $C^2$ convergence, I'm not sure. I think $\partial_{ij}g_n$ converges uniformly to zero on any $\{f\ge\epsilon\}$ at least.
Jan 19, 2018 at 10:15 history edited Pietro Majer CC BY-SA 3.0
cleaner proof
Jan 18, 2018 at 15:01 history edited Pietro Majer CC BY-SA 3.0
m
Jan 18, 2018 at 13:55 comment added Pedro Lauridsen Ribeiro It could be the case that $C^2$ convergence fails in certain cases. Bony et alii (hehe) showed in the paper cited in my question that if $n\geq 4$ there is a non-negative smooth function in $\mathbb{R}^n$ which is not a finite sum of squares of $C^2$ functions. Perhaps by mimicking their argument in a way similar to David Speyer's answer one could show that $C^2$ convergence of a would-be series of squares fails for the same counterexample.
Jan 18, 2018 at 11:07 history edited Pietro Majer CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jan 18, 2018 at 7:11 history edited Pietro Majer CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jan 18, 2018 at 0:32 history answered Pietro Majer CC BY-SA 3.0