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Jan 13, 2018 at 21:46 comment added ofer zeitouni Actually, the mean is $1/2$ and the variance is $1/12$, so you are in the regime that the rank 1 perturbation dominates and the fluctuations are Gaussian. Read the answer (and references) to your previous question mathoverflow.net/questions/290582/…
Jan 13, 2018 at 20:55 history edited Tony CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jan 13, 2018 at 20:06 history edited Tony CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jan 13, 2018 at 20:05 comment added Carlo Beenakker an exact result for any $n$ is unlikely, but for large $n$ you should recover the GOE distribution (Gaussian distribution or uniform distribution should not make difference for large $n$).
Jan 13, 2018 at 20:03 history edited Tony CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jan 13, 2018 at 19:52 history asked Tony CC BY-SA 3.0