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Mar 5, 2020 at 8:58 vote accept robin girard
Feb 27, 2020 at 15:52 answer added dohmatob timeline score: 2
Jul 3, 2016 at 12:45 answer added Fedor Goncharov timeline score: 0
Oct 2, 2015 at 9:53 comment added user80963 Do you have a citation for the exact formula in the case where variances are equal?
May 13, 2011 at 14:51 comment added André Schlichting You can get a little bit better with your strategy. Take as intermediate measure $P_{1/2}$ a Gaussian with mean $m_0$ and variance $C_1$ or vice versa. Then you just estimate by using the triangle inequality and the resulting both distances as follows: Firstly, use the exact formula for the difference of the two Gaussians with the same variance. Secondly, use Kullback-Leibler divergence to estimate the both Gaussians with the same mean.
Mar 7, 2011 at 9:21 comment added robin girard I have tried to answer a somehow related question on stats.stackexchange to start a discussion on the interpolation question stats.stackexchange.com/questions/7912/…
Feb 4, 2011 at 6:23 answer added Or Zuk timeline score: 1
Sep 22, 2010 at 6:19 history edited robin girard CC BY-SA 2.5
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Aug 5, 2010 at 7:05 history edited robin girard CC BY-SA 2.5
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Aug 5, 2010 at 7:04 comment added robin girard oops, thanks, I have updated the question...
Aug 5, 2010 at 6:50 history edited robin girard CC BY-SA 2.5
added 2 missing for $d_1$ in the case of equal variance
Aug 4, 2010 at 21:42 comment added George Lowther Shouldn't your formula read $d_1=4\Phi(\sigma/2)-2$, which takes the expected values $d_1=0$ when $\sigma=0$ and $d_1\to2$ as $\sigma\to\infty$?
Aug 4, 2010 at 17:53 history edited robin girard CC BY-SA 2.5
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Jul 27, 2010 at 20:14 history edited robin girard CC BY-SA 2.5
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Jul 19, 2010 at 6:15 history edited robin girard
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Jun 30, 2010 at 8:41 history edited robin girard
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Jun 23, 2010 at 6:37 history edited robin girard
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Jun 22, 2010 at 7:15 history asked robin girard CC BY-SA 2.5