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Jan 17, 2018 at 22:16 history edited Iosif Pinelis
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Jan 12, 2018 at 5:37 vote accept H_R
Jan 11, 2018 at 17:06 comment added H_R This theorem might be useful, but it doesn't address the question. It says that the solution $g$ dominates the sub-solution $f$ on neighborhood of 0. However, the solution $g$ lies about $e^x - 1$ for awhile before it dips below, so it's not enough to control $f$ by $g$ on a small neighborhood of 0. In fact, the length of the interval on which $g$ lies above $e^x - 1$ seems to go to infinity as $\alpha$ goes to 2, so we would need to control the length of the interval on which $f$ is dominated by $g$.
Jan 11, 2018 at 14:39 comment added Nawaf Bou-Rabee Courtesy of google: see Theorem 2 of google.com/…
Jan 11, 2018 at 2:27 answer added Iosif Pinelis timeline score: 2
Jan 10, 2018 at 21:54 history asked H_R CC BY-SA 3.0