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Jan 10, 2018 at 21:51 vote accept Nicolas Boerger
Jan 10, 2018 at 21:40 answer added Igor Rivin timeline score: 3
Jan 10, 2018 at 21:26 comment added Igor Rivin @HJRW That does make more sense, which does not prove that this is what the OP had meant :)
Jan 10, 2018 at 20:44 comment added HJRW @IgorRivin, surely it must be the other way round: orbifolds with underlying manifold the sphere (or perhaps spherical), but that arise as orbifold quotients of Nil, Sol or Euclidean manifolds? (Note that the orbifold fundamental group always surjects the fundamental group of the underlying space.) Anyway, hopefully the OP will clarify.
Jan 10, 2018 at 20:37 history edited YCor CC BY-SA 3.0
edited tags, shortened title, fixed typo
Jan 10, 2018 at 19:40 comment added Igor Rivin I don't understand the question. You want the orbifolds to be a quotient of the sphere as orbifolds, but having nil- sol- and $E^3$ as the underlying manifolds?
Jan 10, 2018 at 16:56 history asked Nicolas Boerger CC BY-SA 3.0