Timeline for Who first proved the generalization of Bertrand's postulate to (2n,3n) and (3n,4n)?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
8 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Feb 7, 2018 at 9:08 | vote | accept | Jose Brox | ||
| Dec 28, 2017 at 19:33 | comment | added | Tony Huynh | The answers to mathoverflow.net/questions/113840/… have pertinent references. | |
| Dec 28, 2017 at 18:42 | answer | added | Jose Brox | timeline score: 24 | |
| Dec 27, 2017 at 21:07 | comment | added | Jose Brox | @CarloBeenakker Looks like a great paper! Nevertheless, the references it gives are the same as the Wikipedia ones (it fails to cite Hanson's work, for example). Besides, it is not for every $k$, just for every $k<10^8$. | |
| Dec 27, 2017 at 21:04 | comment | added | Carlo Beenakker | references to this problem are given in arXiv:1212.2785, with the remarkable theorem: The list of integers $k$ for which every interval $(kn, (k + 1)n)$, $n > 1$, contains a prime includes $k = 1,2,3,5,9,14$ and no others | |
| Dec 27, 2017 at 20:55 | answer | added | Ofir Gorodetsky | timeline score: 23 | |
| Dec 27, 2017 at 20:49 | comment | added | Dan Brumleve | I haven't looked at the proofs but I'm trying to understand how they could possibly be novel. Selberg and Erdős gave elementary proofs of the PNT in 1948. So we already had all these elementary theorems for sufficiently large $n$ seventy years ago, is there some difficulty in making them effective with an elementary argument? | |
| Dec 27, 2017 at 20:14 | history | asked | Jose Brox | CC BY-SA 3.0 |