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Dec 28, 2017 at 9:08 vote accept Turbo
Dec 28, 2017 at 9:08 vote accept Turbo
Dec 28, 2017 at 9:08
Dec 28, 2017 at 9:08 vote accept Turbo
Dec 28, 2017 at 9:08
Dec 28, 2017 at 9:08 vote accept Turbo
Dec 28, 2017 at 9:08
Dec 28, 2017 at 9:08 vote accept Turbo
Dec 28, 2017 at 9:08
Dec 28, 2017 at 8:51 answer added Fedor Petrov timeline score: 1
Dec 28, 2017 at 8:25 history edited Turbo CC BY-SA 3.0
deleted 35 characters in body
Dec 28, 2017 at 7:57 history edited Turbo CC BY-SA 3.0
added 92 characters in body
Dec 28, 2017 at 7:33 comment added Turbo @GHfromMO If $t=b^2+1$ then at $x=0$ and $x=1$ we have perfect squares and so is $g(b^2+1)=1$. Conversely if $g(a)=1$ then does $a=b^2+1$ hold? By this I mean can there be other $x$ and $x+1$ for some $t$ such that both $x(t-x)$ and $(x+1)(t-(x+1))$ are perfect squares? I think is impossible.
Dec 27, 2017 at 21:15 comment added GH from MO This question is very similar to the question on gaps between sums of two squares, which has been studied extensively. See the recent arXiv preprint arxiv.org/pdf/1712.07243.pdf, and see also my response to your previous question mathoverflow.net/questions/289387/… to make the connection.
Dec 27, 2017 at 19:05 history asked Turbo CC BY-SA 3.0