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Dec 13, 2017 at 0:42 vote accept Asvin
Dec 12, 2017 at 17:26 answer added GH from MO timeline score: 4
Dec 12, 2017 at 17:08 comment added Asvin You are right, it is just an artifact of where the problem came from. The $\lambda$ in the previous question was part of the original question but of course if we fix $\lambda$, we might as well take $\lambda = 1$ and scale the $a_i$ accordingly. But then, as you note, we might as well do away with $G(x,y)$ altogether.
Dec 12, 2017 at 17:03 comment added GH from MO The role of $G(x,y)$ is unclear. Why don't you simply define $g(x)$ as $a_0(x) + a_1(x)(x-b_1) + a_2(x)(x-b_1)(x-b_2) + \dots$?
Dec 12, 2017 at 14:31 history asked Asvin CC BY-SA 3.0