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Dec 29, 2017 at 9:39 comment added Pietro Majer An analogous notion is the "mountain distance", a function $q(x,y)$ that shares all properties of a distance but symmetry (one example is the Hausdorff half-distance). Of course one can make a true distance just symmetrizing it, $q(x,y)+q(y,x).$ The point is whether we really need to give these objects a name.
Dec 13, 2017 at 6:24 comment added Martin Sleziak BTW mentioning where you have taken the definitions in your question (metric-like, $B(x,\varepsilon)$ from would be, in my opinion, an improvement to the question. (A reasonable guess might be the paper I found in Google Scholar, but it is still just a guess.)
Dec 12, 2017 at 6:30 review Close votes
Dec 12, 2017 at 20:27
Dec 11, 2017 at 16:53 comment added Martin Sleziak You can find links to some basic info about comment replies, for example, here. (In particular, they do not work if you add space after the @.)
Dec 11, 2017 at 16:52 answer added Martin Sleziak timeline score: 3
Dec 11, 2017 at 16:11 comment added youssef sabar @ Martin Sleziak,the definition of open ball is not same
Dec 11, 2017 at 1:04 comment added Yemon Choi @MartinSleziak I have cast the final vote to reopen, so that you can put some of the details from your earlier comments into an answer below
Dec 11, 2017 at 1:03 history reopened Will Brian
Stefan Kohl
Arturo Magidin
Ramiro de la Vega
Yemon Choi
Dec 8, 2017 at 22:18 comment added Martin Sleziak @WillBrian Since it seems that you are a bit interested in the question (you mentioned that you voted that reopen), I wanted to let you know that I have posted the question (with some additional context) on another site: Does metric-like space generate a topology?
Dec 7, 2017 at 1:00 comment added Martin Sleziak It seems that Wikipedia calls this a metametric. A reference given there is Väisälä, Jussi (2005), "Gromov hyperbolic spaces", Expositiones Mathematicae, 23 (3): 187–231, doi: 10.1016/j.exmath.2005.01.010. From this paper: "A metametric space is metrizable. In fact, a metametric $d$ can be changed to a metric $d_1$ simply by setting $d(x,x)=0$ and $d_1(x,y)=d{x,y}$ for $x\ne y$. Then $d$ and $d_1$ define the same topology."
Dec 6, 2017 at 20:09 history rollback youssef sabar
Rollback to Revision 3 - I think is very interesting question
Dec 6, 2017 at 19:54 comment added youssef sabar @ Arturo Magidin, does not reearch-level questions?!!
Dec 6, 2017 at 18:10 review Reopen votes
Dec 7, 2017 at 11:57
Dec 6, 2017 at 18:02 comment added Martin Sleziak @WillBrian As a follow-up to your edit I have also corrected a few minor typos and explicitly added to the post that this is different from metric space. (Since this can be missed if somebody does not read carefully.) A quick Google search leads to the paper A. Amini-Harand: Metric-like spaces, partial metric spaces and fixed points, doi.org/10.1186/1687-1812-2012-204.
Dec 6, 2017 at 17:59 history edited Martin Sleziak CC BY-SA 3.0
minor typo
Dec 6, 2017 at 17:53 history edited Martin Sleziak CC BY-SA 3.0
minor typo
Dec 6, 2017 at 17:51 history edited Will Brian CC BY-SA 3.0
edited body
Dec 6, 2017 at 17:50 comment added Will Brian There is a typo in the question that makes it difficult to understand what is being asked, but if one replaces the $d$'s with $p$'s in the bottom part of the question, then an interesting question emerges. (@youssef: I think, but I'll have to check details, that the answer is no in general, but yes if $p$ is continuous.) I'm voting to reopen.
Dec 6, 2017 at 16:36 history closed Arturo Magidin
Mark Grant
Asaf Karagila
Gro-Tsen
R W
Not suitable for this site
Dec 6, 2017 at 15:55 review Close votes
Dec 6, 2017 at 16:41
Dec 6, 2017 at 15:28 review First posts
Dec 6, 2017 at 15:36
Dec 6, 2017 at 15:25 history asked youssef sabar CC BY-SA 3.0