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Dec 6, 2017 at 15:14 vote accept Eins Null
Dec 6, 2017 at 14:12 comment added Jeremy Rouse We have $\# E(\mathbb{F}_{\ell}) = \# F(\mathbb{F}_{\ell})$ for almost every $\ell$ if and only if $E$ and $F$ are isogenous. Most of the examples I describe below are cases where $E$ and $F$ are not isogenous, though (including the example for $p = 17$).
Dec 6, 2017 at 1:22 answer added Jeremy Rouse timeline score: 6
Dec 6, 2017 at 1:09 comment added Jeremy Rouse I presume you wanted $\#E(\mathbb{F}_{l}) \equiv \#F(\mathbb{F}_{\ell})$, so I made an edit.
Dec 6, 2017 at 1:08 history edited Jeremy Rouse CC BY-SA 3.0
Replaced one instance of $E$ with $F$.
Dec 5, 2017 at 22:16 history asked Eins Null CC BY-SA 3.0