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Jun 20, 2010 at 0:01 comment added TonyK My point was that you don't have to go back to when lowercase didn't exist. You only have to go back to when books were hand-written, with no special typefaces to distinguish symbols from text. And this applies to Latin and French too.
Jun 19, 2010 at 18:53 comment added Willie Wong Now, your argument would be much more probable in the renaissance, except then the language of choice would most likely be Latin or French.
Jun 19, 2010 at 18:51 comment added Willie Wong Uh, I thought one of the points Joseph raised was that, at the time of Euclid, there were no such thing as minuscule script: when everything was written in majuscule, I doubt using them will make diagram labels stand out. Medieval scribes who copied manuscripts would likely have used the Greek uncial script, which is still "all-caps". Also, making the text easier to follow is probably one of the things furthest from the minds of those scribes: have you seen one of those illuminated Latin manuscripts? No punctuation or inter-word spacing, with liberal doses of abbreviations they had.
Jun 19, 2010 at 18:06 history answered TonyK CC BY-SA 2.5