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May 2 at 16:04 comment added Hvjurthuk In what sense is $|𝑞^{(𝑛)}_1|$ about $2^{𝑛}$? Could it be that, asymtotically, $|𝑞^{(𝑛)}_1|\sim\frac{2^{𝑛}}{n^{\beta}}$ or so? Because $𝑛^{1/𝑛}\to1$ when $𝑛\to\infty$.
Dec 2, 2017 at 15:31 history answered Richard Stanley CC BY-SA 3.0