Skip to main content
10 events
when toggle format what by license comment
Apr 24, 2018 at 17:24 vote accept Adi
Nov 29, 2017 at 5:58 vote accept Adi
Nov 29, 2017 at 5:58
Nov 28, 2017 at 5:40 review Low quality posts
Nov 28, 2017 at 9:00
Nov 28, 2017 at 5:33 history edited Fan Zheng CC BY-SA 3.0
added 19 characters in body
Nov 28, 2017 at 5:33 comment added Fan Zheng It's me that is missing this condition, but there is an easy fix: let $f=x_1^+:=\max(x_1,0)$.
Nov 28, 2017 at 2:56 comment added Adi Quick question, the measure condition is not satisfied for this function. It's only zero on the hyperplane $x_1=0$. Am i missing something from your answer?
Nov 27, 2017 at 2:03 comment added Fan Zheng Let $r$ be very large and $t=r+1$. Let $f(x_1,\dots,x_n)=x_1$. Then the average of $f$ is $r$ while the average of $\nabla f$ is 1 (no matter which $L^p$ norm you take). This is enough to falsify your proposed inequality.
Nov 23, 2017 at 11:05 comment added Adi Could you please elaborate a little? I expect there is a problem as $t \rightarrow r$, but I am trying to understand what subclass of functions admits such an inequality.
Nov 22, 2017 at 15:31 review Low quality posts
Nov 22, 2017 at 15:46
Nov 22, 2017 at 15:15 history answered Fan Zheng CC BY-SA 3.0