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Nov 21, 2017 at 20:29 comment added Cepu Right! I tought the claim was about $\operatorname{Conf}_{l}(M)$.
Nov 21, 2017 at 20:27 vote accept Cepu
Nov 21, 2017 at 20:23 comment added Dan Petersen I don't understand what you mean. The map goes $H^2(M^l) \to H^2(\mathrm{Conf}_l(M))$, and the claim is that the Massey products vanish in $H^2(M^l)$.
Nov 21, 2017 at 20:15 comment added Cepu Thanks! Could you explain why an isomorphism between first cohomology group implies an equality between Massey products? They are contained in the second cohomology group. Consider the map induced by $\operatorname{Conf}_{l}(M)\to M^{l}$ in the second cohomology group. I 'don't get why this map does not kill some Massey products.
Nov 21, 2017 at 16:29 comment added Dan Petersen You're right, I was very confused. I edited the answer.
Nov 21, 2017 at 16:29 history undeleted Dan Petersen
Nov 21, 2017 at 16:29 history edited Dan Petersen CC BY-SA 3.0
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Nov 21, 2017 at 13:55 history deleted Dan Petersen via Vote
Nov 21, 2017 at 13:51 comment added Cepu Thanks for your answer, It seems to me that you are saying that $V_{1}$ is generated by the ordinary product (all the higher product vanish), for any $l$. I'm right? Does this follows from the fact that $X\setminus{p}$ is formal, i.e. if $M$ is formal, then so is $\operatorname{Conf}_{l}(M)$?
Nov 21, 2017 at 13:46 comment added Cepu I edit the question because of too many $n$
Nov 21, 2017 at 12:25 history answered Dan Petersen CC BY-SA 3.0