Timeline for An inequality question
Current License: CC BY-SA 2.5
4 events
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Jun 20, 2010 at 9:35 | comment | added | Pietro Majer | Well I have added an edit, I hope it's clear. To see the picture, one can exaggerate things, taking the $l^\infty$ and $l^1$ norms instead of the $l^3$ and $l^{3/2}$. Actually I'd say that the inequality is generically never true for any pairs of dual norms, with the only exception of the Euclidean case. | |
Jun 20, 2010 at 9:31 | history | edited | Pietro Majer | CC BY-SA 2.5 |
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Jun 18, 2010 at 18:43 | comment | added | user6847 | Pietro, I have chosen to close the question, but thank you anyway. I think it is true when fixing $m_{3,1}=m_{3,2}=0$ makes everything 2 dimensional, but if you have a counter example, I would be glad to see. | |
Jun 18, 2010 at 12:25 | history | answered | Pietro Majer | CC BY-SA 2.5 |