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Nov 15, 2017 at 11:21 vote accept TOM
Nov 15, 2017 at 2:25 comment added fedja mathoverflow.net/questions/172310/…
Nov 15, 2017 at 2:12 answer added Douglas Zare timeline score: 5
Nov 15, 2017 at 1:46 answer added user44143 timeline score: 5
Nov 15, 2017 at 1:27 comment added user44143 @Suvrit, as I see it, the Gaussian correlation inequality assumes a multinormal distribution; while here, the only assumption is that the marginal distributions are normal.
Nov 15, 2017 at 0:48 comment added Brendan McKay You don't say if $X$ and $Y$ have a joint Gaussian distribution, or just are are individually Gaussian (which is a lot more general).
Nov 15, 2017 at 0:40 comment added Suvrit Doesn't this follow simply from the Gaussian Correlation Inequality? en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gaussian_correlation_inequality
Nov 14, 2017 at 23:59 history asked TOM CC BY-SA 3.0