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Nov 21, 2017 at 5:26 vote accept Asaf Shachar
Nov 13, 2017 at 18:15 comment added Igor Rivin @fedja My claim is that the argument given here is reasonably self-contained, and does not require any knowledge of Funk transform (or its existence). It seems unlikely that one can get the result without the representation theory (though I would be happy to be proven wrong...)
Nov 13, 2017 at 18:09 comment added fedja "Without relying on the invertibility of the Funk transform" seems to be the crucial part of the question. Of course, your convolution is not exactly that, but I would say that the invertibility of the Funk transform is easier (just because the roots of orthogonal polynomials interlace and all odd polynomials vanish at $0$, so no even one does).
Nov 13, 2017 at 17:53 history answered Igor Rivin CC BY-SA 3.0